This post is intended to give links that, in effect, constitute scriptural replies to Matt Slick's 100 (Alleged) Truths About Jesus. Matt Slick's list has been reproduced on many sites and in many forums. We do not disagree with all of Matt Slick's statements, but we do believe that he is in error regarding many things. This work is in progress, and we will adding to it, God willing, as time permits.
Matt Slick asserts that Jesus claimed to be God, and he gives John 8:24; 8:56-59 (citing Exodus 3:14) and John 10:30-33. In reality, none of the scriptures cited represent Jesus as claiming to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob of Exodus 3:14,15. The thought that Jesus was claiming to be the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob has to be formulated beyond what Jesus stated, and assumptions formed have to added to and read into what Jesus stated.
Regarding John 8:24; 8:56-59 and Exodus 3:14, see the following studies:
The "I am" Statements of Jesus
Is "I am" Used By Jesus the Divine Name of God?
Past Tense Translations of Ego Eimi
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus
Is "I am" Used By Jesus the Divine Name of God?
Past Tense Translations of Ego Eimi
The Real Reason the Jews Sought to Kill Jesus
John 10:30-33
In John 10:30-33, likewise, we do not find that Jesus is saying that he is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, but rather he declares his oneness with the only true Supreme Being who had sent him. (Isaiah 61:1,3; John 17:1,3) He prayed for this same oneness to exist between his followers, himself and the only true God who had sent him. (John 17:1,3,11,20-23) While Jesus pointed out the true reason that they sought to kill him, the lying Jews denied that real reason.
For studies related to John 10:30-33:
The real truth is the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob (Exodus 3:14,15), by means of his holy spirit, reveals through the scriptures that Jesus was sent by Jehovah, speaks for Jehovah as his unipersonal God and Father, represents Jehovah, and it was the unipersonal God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob who raised and glorified His Son. Jesus never claimed to be, nor do the scriptures present Jesus as, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, whom Jesus represents and speaks for. — Deuteronomy 18:15-22; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.
Matt Slick asserts that Jesus is called "God" (evidently with the meaning of "Supreme Being") in the following verses: John 1:1,14; 20:28; Colossians 2:9; Titus 2:13; Hebrews 1:8.
John 1:1
John refers to the prehuman Jesus with the Greek word THEOS in John 1:1. Most translations render the Greek word often transliterated as THEOS as "God", with a capital letter, with the deliberate desire to make it say that Jesus "was" -- before he became flesh -- the "one God" (1 Corinthians 8:6) who is the source of all, the Supreme Being, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. John 1:14 relates how the prehuman Logos "became flesh"; it says nothing about Jesus' being the Supreme Being; it certainly does not say that the Supreme Being added flesh to His being the Supreme Being, as many like to imagine and read into what is stated there.
Since John makes it clear that Jesus, as the Logos, was with the only true Supreme Being before the world of mankind had been made through him (John 17:1,3,5), the default reasoning is not to imagine and assume that THEOS as applied to Jesus means that Jesus "was" the Supreme Being, but, in harmony with the rest of the Scriptures, that John was using a Hebraism to denote that Jesus "was" a mighty being before he became flesh.
John 1:14
Colossians 2:9
Colossians 2:9 in the Greek refers to the plentitude of godship -- mightiness -- that the only true God (John 17:1,3) has given to Jesus in his exalted celestial, spiritual body. -- 1 Corinthians 15:27,39-41; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; 1 Peter 3:18.
See the studies:
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/scriptures-examined.html#col2-9
https://jesusnotyhwh.blogspot.com/p/scriptures-examined.html#col2-9
Titus 2:13
In keeping with the Paul's general stance of presenting "God" as only one person, that is, the God and Father of Jesus (1 Corinthians 8:6; Ephesians 1:3; 4:6; 1 Timothy 2:5), even many trinitarian translators have rendered this verse in a manner that makes it clear that Paul was not saying that Jesus is "our Great God".
See the RL study:
The Great God
Hebrews 1:8
Quoting Psalms 45:6,7 -- If thel "one God" of 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Hebrews 1:1 is referring to his son as ELOHIM/THEOS in Hebrews 1:8, in keeping with the Hebraic usage, it should be understood as not meaning the Supreme Being, since it is the only true Supreme Being, the Lord Jehovah, who anointed and sent Jesus. Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; John 17:1,3; Acts 10:38.
See the RL study:
Why is Jesus Called ELOHIM and THEOS?
The truth is that in the very, very, few instances in which one could see Jesus as being called "God", it does not follow that he is being called the only true Supreme Being. Indeed, in none of the instances often given wherein it is claimed that Jesus is being called "God" does it mean that Jesus is being referred as the only true Supreme Being, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
The truth is that in the very, very, few instances in which one could see Jesus as being called "God", it does not follow that he is being called the only true Supreme Being. Indeed, in none of the instances often given wherein it is claimed that Jesus is being called "God" does it mean that Jesus is being referred as the only true Supreme Being, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
Matt Slick states that Jesus is the image of God, and he gives Hebrews 1:3. Jesus is not being identified as the Supreme Being in Hebrews 1:1-3, but rather the one through whom the Supreme Being (God) speaks, and performs his work. The very fact that he is is image of the one person who is "God" in Hebrews 1:1,2 should satisfy one that Jesus is not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. This agrees with 1 Corinthians 8:6 and the rest of the New Testament.
Hebrews 7:24
But he, because he lives forever, has his priesthood unchangeable. -- World English.
Matt Slick refers to Hebrews 7:24 as proof that Jesus "abides" forever. We agree that Jesus, now that his God and Father has raised him from the dead (Acts 2:24; 3:13,15,26; 4:10; 5:30; 10:40; 13:34,37; 17:31; Romans 4:24; 6:10; 8:11; 10:9; 1 Corinthians 6:14; 15:15; 2 Corinthians 4:14; 13:4; Galatians 1:1; Ephesians 1:20; Colossians 2:12; 1 Thessalonians 1:10; Hebrews 5:7; 1 Peter 1:21), he will never die again (Romans 6:9; Revelation 1:18), and thus, he lives forever. However, often when some read Hebrews 7:24, they may imagine and assumed that it means that Jesus was uncreated. This, of course, is not what is stated in Hebrews 7:24, or any where else in the Bible.
Matt Slick claims that Jesus is the Creator of "all things", evidently meaning that Jesus is the Supreme Being who is the source of all creation in the universe. He presents John 1:1-3 and Colossians 1:15-17 as proof. In reality, both scriptures present Jesus, not as the source of the creation being spoken of, but as the instrument that God uses in the creation. Colossians 1:15 presents "God" as only one person, and Jesus, not as being the only true Supreme Being, but rather as being the "image" of the only true Supreme Being, which harmonizes with Jesus' words of John 17:1,3 and Paul's words at 1 Corinthians 8:6.
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See our studies related to:
Jesus and Creation
Jesus and Creation
6. Jesus is Before All
John1:1-3
Slick refers to John 1:1-3 and Colossians 1:17 and claims that Jesus is before all things. The word "things" is not inherent in the Greek of either John 1:3 or Colossians 1:16,17; the Greek word often transliterated as "pas" -- translated as "all" or "all things" in these verses -- rarely means all things in the entire universe, and it is most often limited by context or common evidence. The context of John 1:3 is the beginning of the world of mankind into which the Logos came. (John 1:10) This is the same word spoken of in Romans 5:12 and the same "all creation" spoken of Romans 8:22.
CLICK HERE for relevant studies
Colossians 1:17
The context of Colossians 1:17 is related to all living creatures, but would exclude the firstborn creature himself. (Colossians 1:15) "Pas", as used here, refers to more than just the world of mankind, but includes all the heavenly spirit creatures.
The truth: Jesus is indeed created before all the living creation that was made through him, giving him the preeminence above all creatures.
Matt Slick claims that Jesus is eternal and he gives John 1:1,14; 8:58; and Micah 5:1,2 as proof. We first wish to say that we do believe that Jesus, now that he will never die again, is scripturally eternal. However, this is not what most trinitarians mean when they say "eternal"; they usually give their meaning as something like uncreated, having no beginning or end, outside of time, etc. None of these meanings however, are inherent in the Hebrew and Greek words that are usually translated "everlasting", "eternal", etc.
John 1:1,14
We find nothing in John 1:1,14 that says that Jesus has always been, or that he had eternal past, although that is what many often read into what is stated. It is assumed, and translators often word the matter to make it seem to confirm that assumption, that the "all" of John 1:3 refers to the entire created universe, and it is further often assumed that time is part the "all" that was made through the Logos, and therefore that Jesus was existing before time was created, as many often put it, or that he was existing outside of time. In reality, these thoughts have to imagined and assumed beyond what is written, for no such thoughts are presented anywhere in the Bible, nor is there anything in John 1:1,14 that gives any thought that Jesus was not created before the beginning of the world of mankind. -- John 1:10.
See studies related to John 1:1.
John 8:58
Again, in John 8:58 we do not find anything to the effect that Jesus has always existed, although that is what many like to read into what Jesus said. Jesus was expressing his existence before Abraham was; this does not mean he was claiming to have always existed.
Many translations of Micah 5:2 make it appear that Jesus was "from everlasting" or "from eternity", which is interpreted to mean that Jesus has always existed, and thus was uncreated. However, this is only verse we have found in the entire Bible where anyone translates the Hebrew phrase being used as meaning everlasting or eternity. Additionally, many translations do not have the word "everlasting" or "eternal" in Micah 5:2. Even in Micah 7:14, where we find the same phrase, we do not know of any translation that renders the phrase as from of old, from everlasting. In Deuteronomy 32:7, also, the phrase is rendered in the KJV as "days of old"; the same expression is also used in Isaiah 63:9,11; Amos 9:11 and Malachi 3:4. We do not know of any translation that renders the phrase in those verses as having any meaning of eternity past. Thus, to the only reason to render as meaning forever in Micah 5:2 would be to due to the misconception that Jesus was uncreated. As a result, any usage of the scripture to attempt to prove that Jesus is uncreated becomes circular reasoning, in effect, saying, "Because we believe Jesus is uncreated, we render Micah 5:2 to express Jesus' being uncreated, and because of we have done this, then Micah 5:2 proves that Jesus is uncreated. See also Micah 5:7, wherein we find that Jehovah is presented as being Jesus' God.
See our study:
Micah 5:2 – From everlasting or from ancient days?
John 5:23
“That all men should honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father.”
This is a truth; however, we are sure that Matt Slick would like for people to imagine, assume, and read into Jesus' words that the there is something in his statement that would mean that Jesus was claiming to be God, or to be equal to God. However, since Jesus identified his God and Father as being the only true God, and excludes himself from being that only true God by claiming the only true God had sent him, the honor due to Jesus is that of being God's representative, who speaks and acts on behalf of the only true God whom he represents. He is equal to his God only in that he faithfully represents and does the work on behalf of the only true God who sent him; this does not make Jesus into being the "one God" of whom are all. -- Deuteronomy 18:15-22; Matthew 22:32; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; 12:26; Luke 13:35; 20:37; John 3:2,17,32-35; 4:34; 5:19,30,36,43; 6:57; 7:16,28; 8:26,28,38; 10:25; 12:49,50; 14:10; 15:15; 17:8,26; 20:17; Acts 2:22,34-36; 3:13-26; 5:30; Romans 15:6; 2 Corinthians 1:3; 8:6; 11:31; Colossians 1:3,15; 2:9-12; Hebrews 1:1-3; Revelation 1:1.
See our study:
Honor the Son As the Father
9. Jesus is Prayed To
Matt Slick states that Jesus is prayed to, and he provides the following scriptures: Acts 7:55-60; 1 Corinthians 1:2 with Psalm 116:4; John 14:14. Usually, the thought behind presenting these scriptures is to claim that Jesus is Jehovah, and then to further imagine and assume that Jesus is a person of Jehovah, etc. In reality, there is nothing in the scriptures that should lead one to think that Jesus is Jehovah. We have discussed all these scriptures and more in our study:
Jesus as the Object of Prayer
10. Jesus is Worshiped
Matt Slick presents Matthew 2:2,11; 14:33; John 9:35-38; Hebrews 1:6 as proof that Jesus is worshiped. We do not deny that the Greek for worship is applied to Jesus in these verses. The thought is often given that since Jesus is worshiped, then Jesus is must be God, or else those who are spoken of as worshiping Jesus were committing idolatry. The problem is that the Hebrews used the same word for they used for worship also for any homage given to anyone, whether the Almighty or men. There is no indication in any of the scriptures in which Jesus is worshiped, or given homage, that such worship/homage was being given with the thought that Jesus is the Almighty Jehovah. For our examination of related scriptures, see our studies related to:
The Worship of Jesus.
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The claim is made that Jesus is omnipresent, which is often defined as meaning that he would be infinitely present absolutely everywhere all the time. The following scriptures are given as alleged proof: Matthew 18:20; 28:20. The scriptures given certainly show that the only true God who sent Jesus has given to Jesus the ability to be present in more than one place. (Matthew 28:18; Luke 10:22; John 3:35; 5:22-27; 1 Corinthians 15:27) As the one appointed by God as “Lord” over the church (Acts 2:36; 10:42; Ephesians 1:3,17-23; Hebrews 1:9; 3:2), Jesus would of necessity need to be present in some way with his followers. Such does not mean that Jesus is the "one God" of whom are all. -- 1 Corinthians 8:6.
See our study:
Matthew 18:20; 28:20 – Jesus’ Presence With Us
The claim is made that Jesus is omnipresent, meaning that he is present everywhere in the universe at the same time. This is one of the trinitarian alleged attributes that only can belong to the Supreme Being, and thus, by such reasoning is often then claimed that since Jesus has this attribute, he must be the Supreme Being. The following scriptures are given to support the claim: Matthew 18:20; 28:20. Obviously, there is nothing in either Matthew 18:20 nor in Matthew 28:20 that says that Jesus present everywhere at same time in the whole universe, thus, such a thought has to be imagined, assumed, added to, and read into what Jesus actually did say. See our studies related to this at:
Matthew 18:20; 28:20 – Jesus’ Presence With Us
Our Only Mediator
1 Timothy 2:5
Matt Slick states that Jesus is our only mediator between God and ourselves. This we agree with. The fact that he is mediator between God and sinful mankind however indicates that he is not the "one God" of 1 Timothy 2:5, just as he is not the "one God" of 1 Corinthians 8:6.
See our study:
**********God willing, more to follow...
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